From: "Aaron B"
Newsgroups: uk.finance uk.legal
Subject: Re: Petrol Station rip off
Date: Wed, 25 Apr 2007 12:28:37 +0100
"Alex" wrote in message
news:598s89F2k5921U1@mid.individual.net...
> At 12:15:57 on 25/04/2007, John Boyle delighted uk.legal by announcing:
>
>> In message <5964n6F2ft3ftU1@mid.individual.net>, Alex
>> writes
>> > > No.
>> >
>> > Yes. It is only theft if there is a dishonest appropriation with
>> > intent to permanently deprive. If you honestly appropriated the
>> > fuel and/or you had no intent to permanently deprive then there's
>> > no theft.
>>
>> Not quite. If you have the intent to 'make off' without paying for a
>> service for which payment is due on the spot, with the purpose of
>> avoiding payment, then that is theft. The concept of permanently
>> depriving is not relevant in this section.
>
> How can the definition of theft not be relevant to the question of
> whether theft has occurred?
>
Because another offence, not theft, may be committed by not paying for the
petrol at the time.
Or else, people could stay at hotels and leave without paying, claiming that
they were going to come back later.
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