From: "Handyman Jack" 
Newsgroups: misc.consumers.house
Subject: Re: easement vs ownership
Date: 9 Mar 2006 12:22:06 -0800
   posting-account=SVXSTw0AAADM9-6DIN_iFrqFUBZdmk7y

One can own a piece of property and have an easement across that same
property.   An easement is for legal access to land for a stated
purpose--in your case, the driveway.  However, your neighbor COULD
actually own the land (or a part of it), and you still have easement
rights to gain access to your out-parcel of land that would have no
entrance from a dedicated street/highway.

When a builder sub-divides an area, he must grant easements for those
lots without access from public thoroughfares.   The ownership of the
property will be stated in your deed in "meets & bounds"--described in
feet from a "POB"--(point of beginning), usually an iron pin hammered
into the soil, and often covered by a few inches of soil.   At the
county seat/courthouse/hall of records, etc. there will be a plat map
of the land area that shows the lots and blocks of a subdivision.
With that information one can find the exact points where his property
joins another's.

The public sewage easement might also be YOUR property, but you would
be enjoined/prevented from building on that space (as in the case of
your driveway, too).

You should contact your insurance agent for verification of coverage
for accidents/injuries, etc. on your property.

In my own case, I own about 3/5ths of the 12' alley at the rear of my
property.   There is a "utility company easement" for utility company
workers, but the land is still private property owned by me and my
neighbor on the other side of me.   I must maintain the grass, just as
people do for that area between a sidewalk and a street.

Hope this helps.   My business degree in real estate from No. TX State
Univ. was in 1981, so I'm a bit "rusty" on some specifics.