From: "Doug Ramage" 
Newsgroups: uk.finance
Subject: Re: Buy to let mortgages etc.
Date: Thu, 8 Jan 2004 14:15:36 -0000


"Ronald Raygun"  wrote in message
news:djcLb.9740$kq3.108287014@news-text.cableinet.net...
> Doug Ramage wrote:
>

>
> By the way, Doug, it has often been mentioned here that there is
> no minimum period of private use to qualify for PPR status, i.e.
> it is quality rather than quantity of private use that counts.  But
> in the case of nominated use, as distinct from actual use, how is
> that quality tested?  If you own no other property (live with
> parents/friends or in rented accomodation), and buy one with the
> intention of letting, can you nominate it for the period before
> your first tenants take up residence, and for all the vacant
> periods between tenants?  Or would the usual sham-recognition
> processes operate (such as noting that your pre- and post-nomination
> residences were the same and you hadn't really given them up during
> the nomination)?
>

IMHO, occupation (as a residence) of the property must take place to benefit
from a PPR election. So, in theory, the nomination would be invalid for the
period up to occupation by the tenants, and not possible (subject to partial
letting) while there were tenants.
--
Doug Ramage

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